14
Inspections
23
Deficiencies
0
Actual Harm or Above
6
Occurrences
April 16, 2026
Last Inspection
S/S D/E/F Potential for harm
The most recent inspection of CENTER AT FORESIGHT LLC, THE on record is dated April 16, 2026. Across 14 published inspections, state surveyors cited 23 deficiencies, none of which reached the actual-harm level.
Colorado publishes inspections on a rolling window, so older surveys may no longer appear. Citation codes 0000 and 9999 are the surveyor's opening and closing comments, not deficiencies, and are excluded from the counts above. Where the state required one, the facility's own plan of correction is shown beneath the finding it answers.
Provider Information
Status
Active
Facility Type
SNF (Medicare Only)
Administrator
Shear, Deedra
Owner
THE CENTER AT FORESIGHT, LLC
Phone
(970) 985-7900
Payor Source
Medicare, Private Pay
City
GRAND JUNCTION
ZIP
81505-1012
Inspections & Citations
14 inspections · 23 deficiencies4/16/2026Recertification Survey · ID 1E2D6F-L15 deficiencies▼
0000INITIAL COMMENTSSurveyor note▼
Findings
INITIAL COMENTS (ID Prefix Tag #K000) are informational only and a representation of the facility's general characteristics. This survey was conducted in accordance with the Federal Register at Section 42 CFR 483.90(a) This survey was conducted on April 16, 2026, for compliance with the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 101, Life Safety Code (2012) Chapter 18, "New Health Care Occupancies;" NFPA 99, Health Care Facilities Code (2012); and all referenced standards. The facility will meet these requirements when the following deficiencies are corrected. This structure is a three (3) story, Type II (111) construction. The facility has a partial basement that is used for support services only and there is no resident access. The facility is licensed for 54 beds and the census on the date of the survey was 45.
Plan of correction
The state did not require a plan of correction for this citation.
0321Hazardous Areas - Enclosure▼
Findings
Through observation and interview during the survey, it was determined that the facility failed to meet the protection requirements in accordance with NFPA 101, 18.3.2.1. Findings include: First floor soiled linen room was missing the door hardware. The door to the room is a ¾ hour fire resistive door which failed to positively latch. Maintenance Director’s office/storage room is over 100 square feet with a ¾ hour fire resistive door which was being held open with a rubber door chock. The door chock would not allow the fire resistive door to be self-closing or automatic closing. NFPA 101, 18.3.2.1, hazardous area shall be protected in accordance with 8.7 and Table 18.3.2.1 NFPA 101, 8.7 Special Hazard ProtectionNFPA 101, 8.7.1.3, Doors in barriers required to have a fire resistance rating shall have a minimum 3/4 hour rating and be self-closing or automatic closing in accordance with 7.2.1.8. NFPA 101, 7.2.1.8 Self-Closing DevicesNFPA 101, 7.2.1.8.1, A door leaf required to be kept closed shall not be secured in the open position at any time and shall be self-closing or automatic-closing in accordance with 7.2.1.8.2NFPA 101, 7.2.1.8.2, door leaves shall be permitted to be automatic-closing by the authority having jurisdiction and other criteria identified in the section. These deficiencies have the potential to affect occupants, who might include residents, staff, and visitors. Deficient items were discussed during the survey and the exit conference.
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
Plan of Correction – K Tag / Hazardous Area ProtectionNFPA 101, 18.3.2.1 / 8.7 / 7.2.1.8The facility acknowledges the findings related to the first-floor soiled linen room door failing to positively latch due to missing hardware and the Maintenance Director’s office/storage room fire-rated door being held open with a rubber door chock, preventing the door from self-closing as required. The deficient practice for the missing hardware was identified prior to survey. Replacement door hardware had already been ordered and was delivered the day of survey. The surveyor was shown the new hardware, and the hardware was installed the same day following the survey. The rubber door chock was immediately removed from the Maintenance Director’s office/storage room door to ensure the fire-rated door remained self-closing and unobstructed in accordance with NFPA requirements. All residents, staff, and visitors residing in or entering the facility have the potential to be affected by this deficient practice. No injuries or adverse events resulted from the identified deficiencies. The Maintenance Director or designee conducted an audit of all hazardous area fire-rated doors throughout the facility to verify doors positively latch, self-close, and are not obstructed or held open by unapproved devices. No additional concerns were identified. The Maintenance Director and maintenance staff were educated on NFPA 101 requirements related to hazardous area protection, fire-rated door operation, positive latching, and prohibition of unapproved hold-open devices. Staff were instructed to immediately remove any door wedges, chocks, or other devices preventing proper door operation. The Maintenance Director or designee will complete monthly audits of hazardous area fire-rated doors for a period of three months to ensure doors properly self-close, positively latch, and remain free from unapproved hold-open devices. Findings will be documented and reported to the facility Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI) Committee for review and further recommendations as needed to ensure ongoing compliance.
0324Cooking Facilities▼
Findings
Based on observation and staff interview during the course of the survey, it was determined the facility did not provide commercial cooking equipment in accordance with NFPA 101, section 19.3.2.5 and 9.2.3. Findings include:Excess grease was found on the filters and flat surface areas above and behind the cooking appliances. Both grease catch basins below the exhaust hood were full and grease was dripping on the floor. The inspection tag for the kitchen suppression system did not contain the year of manufacturer and the date of the installation of the fusible links. NFPA 101, 19.3.2.5.1 requires cooking facilities to be protected in accordance with 9.2.3. NFPA 101, 9.2.3 requires commercial cooking equipment to be installed, tested and maintained in accordance with NFPA 96, Standard for the Ventilation Control and Fire Protection of Commercial Cooking Operations. NFPA 96, 11.2 Inspection, testing, and maintenance of fixed-extinguishing systemsNFPA 96, Section 11.2.1, in part, requires inspection, testing and maintenance every 6 months. NFPA 96, 11.2.5 The year of manufacturer and the date of installation shall be marked on the system inspection tag. NFPA 96, 11.4, in part requires the entire exhaust system to be inspected for grease buildup by a properly trained and qualified person. The commercial cooking equipment deficiency has the potential to affect all staff, visitors, and residents in the kitchen and dining area; items were discussed during the survey and again during the exit conference.
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
Plan of Correction (POC)Deficient Practice: Commercial Cooking Equipment – NFPA 101 §19.3.2.5 and §9.2.3 / NFPA 96 Compliance
1. Corrective Action for Affected AreasUpon identification of the deficiency, Dietary staff completed thorough cleaning of all commercial cooking equipment. This included removal of grease accumulation from filters, exhaust hood surfaces, and all flat surfaces above and behind cooking appliances. Grease catch basins beneath the exhaust hood were emptied, cleaned, and returned to proper working condition. The Maintenance Director conducted an immediate follow-up inspection of the entire kitchen exhaust system to verify that visible grease buildup had been removed and that conditions were safe. The kitchen fire suppression system inspection tag was reviewed, and corrective documentation was initiated to ensure required information (including year of manufacture and fusible link installation date) is accurately recorded in accordance with NFPA 96 §11.2.5.2. Systemic Correction / Identification of Other AreasAn audit of all kitchen exhaust systems and associated fire suppression components throughout the facility was completed by the Maintenance Director with no additional issues identified. 3. Measures to Prevent RecurrenceThe facility has implemented a reinforced preventive maintenance and cleaning schedule for all commercial cooking equipment and exhaust systems in accordance with NFPA 96. This includes:Scheduled cleaning of hoods, filters, ductwork, and grease traps at required intervals. Documentation of all cleaning activities in a designated kitchen maintenance log. Monthly visual inspection of grease accumulation by the Maintenance Director or designee. Verification that all fire suppression system tags are fully completed and maintained. 4. Staff EducationDietary and Maintenance staff will be educated on:Proper cleaning procedures for commercial cooking equipment and exhaust systems. Required frequency of cleaning and inspection per NFPA 96. Importance of maintaining grease-free surfaces and functional grease collection systems. Proper completion and verification of fire suppression system inspection tags. Education was completed by the Maintenance Director. 5. Monitoring and ComplianceThe Maintenance Director or designee will conduct weekly audits of the kitchen area for four (4) weeks, then monthly thereafter, to ensure compliance with NFPA 96 requirements. Findings will be documented and reported to the facility Quality Assurance/Performance Improvement (QAPI) committee for ongoing review.
0353Sprinkler System - Maintenance and Testing▼
Findings
Through observation and interview during the survey, it was determined that the facility failed to meet the extinguishment protection requirements in accordance with NFPA 101, section 18.3.5 Findings include:1) Spare head box missing required information for all sprinkler heads installed throughout the building. Spare head cabinet indicates 3 sprinkler head types. There were five different types of heads identified during the survey. Contractor to verify and update the list, including revision date. 2) Minimum requirements for the stock of spare sprinklers to be two (2) of each type and temperature. Missing ordinary temp upright heads and only one (1) high temp upright head. Contractor to verify all sprinkler head make, type, and temperature heads are available. Additional sprinkler heads may be required depending on the quantity in use on the system. NFPA 101, 18.3.5 Extinguishment requirementsNFPA 101, 18.3.5.1, Buildings containing health care occupancies shall be protected throughout by an approved, supervised, automatic sprinkler system in accordance with 9.7 Automatic Sprinklers and Other Extinguishing Equipment NFPA 101, 9.7.1.1, Automatic sprinkler system requirements shall be in accordance with NFPA 13, Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems NFPA 13 section 6.2.9.7 A list of the sprinklers installed in the property shall be posted in the sprinkler cabinet. NFPA 13, 6.2.9.7.1* The list shall include the following:(1) Sprinkler Identification Number (SIN) if equipped; or the manufacturer, model, orifice, deflector type, thermal sensitivity, and pressure rating(2) General description(3) Quantity of each type to be contained in the cabinet(4) Issue or revision date of the list This deficiency has the potential to affect occupants, who might include residents, staff, and visitors within the building. Deficient items were discussed during the survey and exit conference.
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
Tag Number: F0353Scope/Severity: DCorrective Action for Residents Affected by the Deficient Practice:No residents were harmed by the deficient practice. Upon identification of the deficiency, the facility immediately contacted Excel Fire. Additionally, Excel Fire ordered and will supply the missing spare sprinkler heads, including two (2) spare sprinkler devices for all five (5) sprinkler head types and temperature ratings utilized throughout the facility to ensure compliance with NFPA 13 minimum stock requirements. How the Facility Will Identify Other Residents or Areas Having the Potential to be Affected:The entire facility sprinkler system and spare head cabinet inventory were audited by Excel Fire Protection and facility maintenance staff to ensure all sprinkler head types, temperatures, quantities, and documentation requirements were accurate and compliant with NFPA 13 and NFPA 25 standards. No additional deficient areas were identified. Measures Put Into Place or Systemic Changes Made to Ensure the Deficient Practice Will Not Recur:The facility implemented the following corrective measures:The sprinkler spare head cabinet inventory list was updated to include all sprinkler head types installed in the facility, including manufacturer/model information, temperature ratings, quantities required, and revision date. Additional spare sprinkler heads were ordered and will be placed in inventory to maintain the required minimum stock of two (2) of each type and temperature rating. The Maintenance Director/designee was educated regarding NFPA 13 and NFPA 25 requirements related to sprinkler spare head inventory, documentation, and ongoing compliance. A preventative maintenance audit tool was implemented to verify quarterly that:Required spare sprinkler heads are maintained onsite. Inventory documentation remains accurate and current. How the Facility Will Monitor Its Corrective Actions to Ensure the Deficient Practice Is Being Corrected and Will Not Recur:The Maintenance Director or designee will complete quarterly audits of the sprinkler spare head cabinet and documentation for three (3) months to verify continued compliance with NFPA 13 and NFPA 25 requirements. Audit findings will be reported through the facility Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI) process. Any identified concerns will be corrected immediately and additional monitoring initiated as necessary.
0511Utilities - Gas and Electric▼
Findings
Based on observation and staff interview during the course of the survey it was determined the facility failed to maintain the building services for gas equipment in accordance with NFPA 101, 19.5, 19.5.1.1, 9.1.1, including NFPA 54, National Fuel Gas Code, Section 9.6.1, including 9.6.1.1 and 9.6.1.2. Findings include: 1) The six-top fuel-fire stove in the kitchen is equipped with casters. The restraint cable was not connected to the appliance to limit movement. 9.6.1.1 Commercial cooking appliances that are moved for cleaning and sanitation purposes shall be connected with a listed appliance connector. The connector shall be configured in accordance with the manufacturer’s installation instructions. 9.6.1.2 Restraint. Movement of appliances with casters shall be limited by a restraining device installed in accordance with the connector and appliance manufacturer’s installation instructions. The building service deficiencies have the potential to affect all room occupants, who might include staff, residents and visitors within the kitchen and dining area. Deficient items were discussed during the survey and again during the exit conference.
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
Life Safety Code Deficiency – Gas Equipment / Kitchen Stove RestraintNFPA 101: 19.5, 19.5.1.1, 9.1.1 and NFPA 54 Sections 9.6.1.1 and 9.6.1.2How the corrective action will be accomplished for those residents found to be affected by the deficient practice:The six-top fuel-fired stove located in the kitchen was immediately corrected during the survey by reconnecting the restraint cable to the appliance in accordance with manufacturer installation requirements. The surveyor verified correction at the time of survey. There was no negative resident outcome identified related to this deficient practice. How the facility will identify other residents having the potential to be affected by the same deficient practice: All movable gas-fired kitchen appliances equipped with casters were inspected by the Maintenance Director to ensure restraint devices were properly installed and connected in accordance with NFPA 54 requirements and manufacturer specifications. No further issues were identified. What measures will be put into place or what systemic changes will be made to ensure the deficient practice will not recur: Education was completed with dietary staff regarding the importance of maintaining restraint devices on movable gas appliances and ensuring equipment is returned to proper position after cleaning. The Dietary Manager and Maintenance Director were also educated on NFPA 54 requirements related to movable gas cooking equipment and restraint devices. The facility implemented routine compliance checks to verify restraint cables remain properly connected and appliances are maintained in accordance with Life Safety Code requirements. How the facility will monitor its corrective actions to ensure the deficient practice is being corrected and will not recur: The Dietary Manager and/or Maintenance Director will complete weekly compliance audits of movable gas cooking equipment for four (4) weeks, then monthly for two (2) months thereafter to ensure restraint devices remain properly connected and functional. Any identified concerns will be corrected immediately and findings will be reported through the facility Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI) process for ongoing monitoring and compliance oversight.
0918Electrical Systems - Essential Electric Syste▼
Findings
Based on observation and staff interview during the course of the survey it was determined the facility failed to maintain emergency power systems in accordance with NFPA 101, 18.5.1 Findings include:The generator annunciator panel has a trouble indicator which is illuminated. The trouble condition indicates “Low Engine Temp”. Was informed this condition has been present for months. Supporting documentation was not provided from the generator manufacturer or service company as to the status of the trouble indicator and overall effect this may have on the backup power. NFPA 101, 18.5 Building ServicesNFPA 101, 18.5.1 UtilitiesNFPA 101, 18.5.1.1, Utilities shall comply with Section 9.1 NFPA 101, 9.1 UtilitiesNFPA 101, 9.1.3 Emergency Generators and Standby Power Systems NFPA 110, Standard for Emergency and Standby Power Systems. NFPA 110, Chapter 8 Routine Maintenance and Operational TestingNFPA 110, 8.3.1, The Emergency Power Standby System shall be maintained to ensure to a reasonable degree that the system is capable of supplying service within the specified time. The generator deficiency has the potential to affect all building occupants, who might include staff, patients and visitors in the event of a power outage and generator failure; items were discussed during the survey and again during the exit conference.
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
Plan of CorrectionTag: Emergency Power Systems / Generator DeficiencyNFPA 101, 18.5.1 / NFPA 110, 8.3.1The facility acknowledges the finding regarding the generator annunciator panel displaying a “Low Engine Temp” trouble condition. Corrective action accomplished for those affected by the deficient practice: The facility immediately contacted the generator service provider, Cummins Generator. On May 4, 2026, Cummins Generator replaced the generator block heater and evaluated the generator system. Following repair, the “Low Engine Temp” trouble indicator was cleared. The generator was tested after repair and verified to be functioning properly and capable of supplying emergency power as required. Identification of other residents or areas having the potential to be affected by the same deficient practice: All residents, staff, and visitors within the facility had the potential to be affected in the event of a power outage and generator failure. The entire emergency power supply system was reviewed to ensure no additional unresolved generator trouble indicators or alarms were present. Measures put into place or systemic changes made to ensure the deficient practice does not recur: The facility has implemented the following measures:Maintenance staff were educated on requirements for prompt investigation and follow-up of all generator alarms and trouble indicators. The generator annunciator panel will be visually checked during routine maintenance rounds to identify and address any alarm conditions timely. Documentation from the generator service company will be maintained on-site for all repairs, inspections, testing, and alarm conditions. Preventive maintenance and testing of the emergency generator system will continue in accordance with NFPA 110 requirements and manufacturer recommendations. Monitoring process to ensure compliance: The Maintenance Director or designee will review and document generator status, annunciator panel conditions, and maintenance logs monthly for a period of three months to ensure ongoing compliance. Any identified concerns will be addressed immediately through the facility’s corrective action process.
3/19/2026Complaint, Recertification Survey · ID 1E2D6F-H12 deficiencies▼
0000Initial CommentsSurveyor note2 building records▼
Findings · record 1 of 2
A Emergency Preparedness survey was conducted from 3/16/26 to 3/19/26. No deficiencies were cited.
Findings · record 2 of 2
A recertification survey with complaint #CO2730263 was completed on 3/16/26 to 3/19/26. Two deficiencies were cited.
Plan of correction
The state did not require a plan of correction for this citation.
0554Resident Self-Admin Meds-Clinically Approp▼
Findings
Based on observations, record review and interviews the facility failed to ensure the self-administration of medications was clinically appropriate for four (#1, #15, #28 and #40) of four residents reviewed for self-administration of medications out of 33 sample residents. Specifically, the facility failed to ensure an assessment was completed in order to determine if the self-administration of medications was clinically appropriate for Resident #1, Resident #15, Resident #28 and Resident #40. Findings include:I. Facility policy and procedure The Self-Administration of Medication policy, revised 2/8/23, was received from the medical records director on 3/19/26 at 11:02 a.m. The policy read, “Residents have the right to self-administer medications if the interdisciplinary team (IDT) has determined that it is clinically appropriate and safe for the resident to do so.“As part of their overall evaluation, the nursing staff will assess each resident's mental and physical abilities to determine whether self-administering medications is clinically appropriate for the resident. “In addition to general evaluation of decision -making capacity, the nursing staff will perform a more specific skill assessment, including (but not limited to) the residents:-Ability to read and understand medication labels;-Comprehension of the purpose and proper dosage and administration time fo his or her medications;-Ability to remove medicine from a container and to ingest and swallow (or otherwise administer) the medications; and, -Ability to recognize the risks and major adverse consequences of his or her medications.“The nursing staff will document their findings and the choices of residents who are able to self-administer medication.”II. Resident #1A. Resident statusResident #1, age 76, was admitted on 2/3/26. According to the March 2026 computerized physician orders (CPO), diagnoses included hemiplegia and hemiparesis (hemiparesis is characterized by partial muscle weakness or reduced coordination, whereas hemiplegia is defined by total paralysis or complete loss of movement on that side), following a cerebral infarction, aphasia, acute respiratory failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and atrial fibrillation (the most common type of irregular heart rhythm). The 2/10/26 minimum data set (MDS) assessment revealed the resident was moderately cognitively impaired with a brief interview for mental status (BIMS) score of 10 out of 15. He required maximum assistance with activities of daily living (ADL). B. Observations On 3/16/26 at 3:30 p.m. a container of Voltaren medication (a topical pain medication) was observed on Resident #1’s bedside table. On 3/17/26 at 10:11 a.m. a container of Voltaren medication was observed on Resident #1’s bedside table. On 3/18/26 at 12:15 p.m. a container of Voltaren medication was observed on Resident #1’s bedside table. C. Resident interviewResident #1 was interviewed on 3/18/26 at 12:26 p.m. Resident #1 said his wife assisted him to administer the Voltaren cream medication to himself when needed. He said he kept the cream at his bedside. D. Record reviewThe self-administration of medications care plan, initiated 2/10/26, revealed Resident #1 could self-administer Biotene Dry Mouth Moist Spray Mouth/Throat solution per physician’s orders. Interventions included assessing/monitoring the resident’s ability to self-administer medications, monitoring the residents’ self-administration frequently and obtaining an order from the physician to self-administer medication.-However, the care plan failed to indicate Resident #1 was able to self-administer Voltaren cream. A self-administration of medications assessment, dated 2/17/26, documented Resident #1 was able to self-administer two medications, fluticasone, and nasal suspension. -The self-administration assessment failed to indicate the resident had been assessed to self-administer Voltaren cream. -A review of Resident #1's March 2026 CPO on 3/17/26 did not reveal a physician's order for Voltaren cream nor a physician’s order for self-administration of Voltaren cream. A second review of Resident #1’s March 2026 CPO on 3/19/26 revealed the following physician’s order: Patient may have Voltaren, fluticasone and Biotene at bedside for self-administration, ordered 3/19/26 at 8:31 a.m.. -However, the physician’s order was not obtained until after the concern was identified during the survey. III. Resident #40A. Resident status Resident #40, age 68, was admitted on 3/9/26. According to the March 2026 CPO, diagnoses included chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The 3/13/26 MDS assessment revealed the resident was cognitively intact with a BIMS score of 13 out of 15. She required maximum assistance with ADLs. B. Resident observations and interviewOn 3/17/26 at 8:40 a.m. an albuterol inhaler and Ayr nasal gel medication were observed on Resident #40’s bedside table. The albuterol inhaler was in reach for her to use. Resident #40 said she had had the albuterol inhaler next to her since she was admitted to the facility because she had trouble breathing and used the medication frequently. On 3/18/26 at 9:35 a.m. an albuterol inhaler and Ayr nasal gel medication remained on Resident #40’s bedside table. The albuterol inhaler was in reach for her to use. C. Record review -Review of Resident #40’s electronic medical record (EMR) failed to reveal a self-administration of medications care plan, a physician’s order to self-administer the albuterol inhaler and Ayr nasal gel, or that a self-administration of medications assessment had been completed to determine if the resident was clinically appropriate to self administer medications. IV. Resident #28A. Resident statusResident #28, age 75, was admitted on 12/22/25. According to the March 2026 CPO, diagnoses included arthritis, type 2 diabetes, hypertension, edema and pulmonary disease. The 12/29/25 MDS assessment revealed the resident was moderately cognitively impaired with a BIMS score of 12 out of 15. She required maximum assistance with ADLs. B. Resident observations and interviewOn 3/16/26 at 4:05 p.m. saline nasal spray and Ayr nasal gel medications were observed on Resident #28’s bedside table. On 3/17/26 at 10:02 a.m. saline nasal spray and Ayr nasal gel medications were observed on Resident #28’s bedside table. Resident #28 said she used the nasal spray and the nasal gel to keep her airway open due to the dryness in the facility. She said she used the medication at home and told the nurse she wanted the medication next to her. On 3/18/26 at 11:43 a.m. the saline nasal spray and Ayr nasal gel medications remained on Resident #28’s bedside table. C. Record review -Review of Resident #28’s electronic medical record (EMR) failed to reveal a self-administration of medications care plan, a physician’s order to self-administer the Ayr nasal gel and saline nasal spray, or that a self-administration of medications assessment had been completed to determine if the resident was clinically appropriate to self administer medications. V. Resident #15A. Resident statusResident #15, age 73, was admitted on 2/26/26. According to the March 2026 CPO, diagnoses included femur fracture and hypertension. The 3/3/26 MDS assessment revealed the resident was moderately cognitively impaired with a BIMS score of 11 out of 15. She required maximum assistance with ADLs. B. Resident observations and interviewOn 3/18/26 at 8:51 a.m. a bottle of AlgaeCal (a plant-based calcium supplement designed to support bone health) was observed on Resident #15’s bedside table. On 3/19/26 at 9:08 a.m. the bottle of AlgaeCal remained on Resident #15’s bedside table. Resident #15 was interviewed on 3/19/26 at 9:08 a.m., she said she wanted the AlgaeCal left at her bedside because she took the supplement with her meals. She said the bottle of AlgaeCal was labeled with her name and the facility knew she had the medications next to her. C. Record reviewThe self-administration of medications care plan, initiated 3/17/26 (during the survey), revealed Resident #15 could self-administer medications per physician’s orders. Interventions included assessing/monitoring the resident’s ability to self-administer medications, monitoring the residents’ self-administration frequently and obtaining an order from the physician to self-administer medication.-However, the care plan failed to specify what medications the resident was able to self-administer. Review of Resident #15’s March 2026 CPO revealed the following physician’s order:Patient may self-administer and keep medications at bedside two times a day for vitamin deficiency. -However, the physician’s order failed to specify which medication Resident #15 was able to keep at her bedside.-Review of Resident #15’s EMR failed to reveal that a self-administration of medications assessment had been completed to determine if the resident was clinically appropriate to self administer medications. VI. Staff interviews Licensed practical nurse (LPN) #1 was interviewed on 3/18/26 at 4:30 p.m. LPN #1 said medications left at the residents’ bedsides needed to have a physician's order and an assessment had to be completed for safe administration. Registered nurse (RN) #1 was interviewed on 3/18/26 at 12:35pm. RN #1 said in order to have medications left at residents’ edsides, a physician's order needed to be obtained and an assessment for safety of self-administration of medications had to be completed. The director of nursing (DON) was interviewed on 3/19/26 at 10:25 a.m. The DON said the residents often asked to have their own medications at their bedside. She said the process for residents to be able to keep medications at their bedside was to obtain a physician’s order and to complete a self-administration medication assessment for evaluation of safe administration. VII. Facility follow-upOn 3/18/26 at 4:30 p.m. the medical records director provided the following information via email:For Resident #1:Resident #1’s self-administration of medications care plan was revised on 3/18/26 to include the self-administration of fluticasone propionate nasal suspension per physician’s orders.-However, the care plan was not updated until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). -Additionally, the 3/18/26 revised care plan failed to include the self-administration of Voltaren cream, which was the medication observed at the resident’s bedside on 3/16/26, 3/17/26 and 3/18/26 (see observations above).-There was no documentation provided by the medical records director to indicate that a self-administration assessment was completed to include the self-administration of Voltaren cream. For Resident #28:A self-administration of medications was care plan was initiated on 3/18/26 (during the survey) and indicated Resident #28 could self-administer medications per physician’s orders. Interventions included completing a self-administration evaluation to ensure the resident was able to self-administer medications safely, assessing/monitoring the resident’s ability to self-administer medications, monitoring the residents’ self-administration frequently and obtaining an order from the physician to self-administer medication.-However, the care plan failed to specify what medications the resident was able to self-administer. -Additionally, the care plan was not initiated until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). The following physician’s order was obtained for Resident #28:Okay to keep Ayr nasal gel and saline nasal spray at bedside, ordered 3/18/26 at 4:01 p.m. (during the survey).-However, the physician’s order was not obtained until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). A self-administration assessment was completed by the DON on 3/18/26 at 4:05 p.m. (during the survey). The assessment indicated Resident #40 was able to self-administer her albuterol inhaler.-However, the self-administration assessment was not completed until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). For Resident #15:A self-administration assessment was completed by the DON on 3/18/26 at 2:26 p.m. (during the survey). The assessment indicated Resident #15 was able to self-administer AlgaeCal two times daily. -However, the self-administration assessment was not completed until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). On 3/23/26 at 6:28 p.m. (after the survey exit) RN #2 provided the following information via email:For Resident #40:A self-administration of medications was care plan was initiated on 3/19/26 (during the survey) and indicated Resident #40 could self-administer medications per physician’s orders. Interventions included completing a self-administration evaluation to ensure the resident was able to self-administer medications safely, assessing/monitoring the resident’s ability to self-administer medications, monitoring the residents’ self-administration frequently and obtaining an order from the physician to self-administer medication.-However, the care plan failed to specify what medications the resident was able to self-administer. -Additionally, the care plan was not initiated until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). The following physician’s order was obtained for Resident #40:Okay to have albuterol inhaler at bedside for self-administration, ordered 3/19/26 at 8:32 a.m. (during the survey).-However, the physician’s order was not obtained until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). A self-administration assessment was completed by the DON on 3/19/26 at 8:33 a.m. (during the survey). The assessment indicated Resident #40 was able to self-administer her albuterol inhaler.-However, the self-administration assessment was not completed until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above).-There was no documentation provided by RN #2 to indicate that a physician’s order had been obtained and a self-assessment had been completed to determine if Resident #40 was clinically appropriate to administer the Ayr nasal gel medication observed at the resident’s bedside on 3/17/26 and 3/18/26 (see observations above).
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
F554 Resident Self-Administration of MedicationsPreparation and execution of this response and plan of correction does not constitute an admission of agreement by the provider of the truth of the facts alleged or conclusions set forth in the statement of deficiencies. The plan of correction is prepared and executed solely because it is requested by the provision of the state and federal law. For the purpose of any allegation the facility is not in substantial compliance with Federal requirements of participation, this response and plan of correction constitute the facility’s allegation of compliance in accordance with the State Operations Manual. I. Immediate Corrective Action for Identified PatientsPatients #15 and #28 were discharged from the facility on 03/19/2026 and 3/21/2026, respectively. Patients #1 and #40, a licensed nurse completed the required evaluation to determine appropriateness of self-administration, provider orders were obtained, and care plan interventions were implemented to ensure compliance with CMS requirements and support safe medication practices. II. Identification of Other Patients Who May Be AffectedAn audit was completed for current patients completed to identify any additional individuals with self-administering medications. The audit included verification of a completed nursing evaluation, provider order, and individualized care plan reflecting self-administration. During the audit, two patients were identified to be affected by the deficient practice and were immediately corrected. III. Systemic Changes Implemented to Prevent RecurrenceBy the compliance date, an in-service will be conducted by the Director of Nursing (DON) or designee for licensed nursing staff to ensure that any patients who prefer to self-administer their medication are properly assessed to determine whether they are clinically appropriate to do so. Specifically, the licensed nurse completes and documents clinical evaluation determining appropriateness, obtain a physician/provider order for self medication administration, complete, an individualized care plan intervention, and ensure that medications stored securely in the patient’s room. A checklist was developed and incorporated into the admission and ongoing evaluation process to ensure all required elements are completed prior to initiation. The DON/designee will validate compliance prior to approval of any patient self-administration. IV. Monitoring Process to Ensure Continued ComplianceThe DON/designee will conduct audits of all the patients self-administering medications and to ensure that protocol is being followed. Audits will be conducted weekly x 4 weeks, then monthly for 2 months. Audits will be documented on a monitoring sheet created by the DON.Results of the audit findings will be reviewed monthly by the Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI) committee monthly. The Committee will review the audits to determine if any changes to the above plan are needed and will do so until substantial compliance is achieved and sustained. Compliance Date: 04/13/2026
0881Antibiotic Stewardship Program▼
Findings
Based on record review and interviews the facility failed to ensure antibiotics were not ordered or administered prior to receiving culture and sensitivity for three (#20, #60 and #72) of nine residents reviewed for antibiotic stewardship out of 33 sample residents. Specifically, the facility failed to ensure the urinalysis culture and sensitivity (a test that detects bacteria or yeast in urine, identifies the specific organism causing an infection, and determines which antibiotics will treat it effectively) test results were obtained prior to starting Resident #20, Resident #60 and Resident #72 on antibiotics for potential urinary tract infections (UTI). Findings include:I. Facility policy and procedure The Antibiotic Stewardship policy and procedure, revised 1/29/25, was provided by the medical records director on 3/19/26 at 1:44 p.m. The policy read, “The Antibiotic Stewardship Program has been developed to promote appropriate use of antibiotics while optimizing the treatment of infections, at the same time reducing the possible adverse events associated with antibiotic use. “The goal of this policy is to limit antibiotic resistance in the post-acute setting, while improving treatment efficacy and patient safety. Antibiotic stewardship activities should, at a minimum, include these basic elements: leadership, accountability, drug expertise, action to implement recommended policies or practices, tracking measures, reporting data, education for clinicians, nursing staff, patients and families about antibiotic resistance and opportunities for improvement.“The infection preventionist (IP) or designee will be responsible for infection surveillance and monitoring, detecting and reporting multi-drug resistance organisms (MDRO) tracking.“The IP will collect and review data such as:-Type of antibiotic ordered, and route of administration;-Whether appropriate tests such as cultures were obtained before ordering antibiotics; and,-Whether the antibiotic was changed during the course of treatment.“Patients that are admitted from the hospital will also be tracked. The infection preventionist or designee will assess if the resident meets criteria to continue antibiotics from the hospital. If the resident does not meet criteria, the physician is to be notified to see if they want to continue with the antibiotic as ordered or discontinue it.”II. Resident #72 A. Resident statusResident #72, age 75, was admitted on 3/16/26. According to the March 2026 computerized physician orders (CPO), diagnoses included metabolic encephalopathy, heart failure, acute respiratory failure and diabetes. The 3/18/26 minimum data set (MDS) assessment revealed the resident was moderately cognitively impaired with a brief interview for mental status (BIMS) score of 12 out of 15. She required minimum assistance with activities of daily living (ADL). B. Record review-Review of Resident #72’s comprehensive care plan review revealed no care plan focus for a UTI. Review of the urinalysis (UA) results for Resident #72, dated 3/17/26 at 4:04 p.m. revealed the resident’s urine was positive for urine nitrites (typically indicate a urinary tract infection (UTI), where bacteria convert dietary nitrates in the urine into nitrites) and urine leukocytes (white blood cells which typically indicate an immune response to UTIs, kidney infections or inflammation). Review of Resident #72’s urine culture and sensitivity (C&S) final test results, dated 3/19/26 at 8:08 a.m., revealed multiple bacterial morphotypes present, indicating probable contamination. The laboratory suggested appropriate recollection of another urine specimen with timely delivery to the laboratory, if clinically indicated. Review of Resident #72’s March 2026 CPO revealed the following physician’s orders:Macrobid (antibiotic) 100 milligrams (mg), give one tablet by mouth two times a day for seven days for a urinary tract infection (UTI), ordered 3/18/26 at 4:41 p.m.-However, the physician’s order was obtained prior to the facility receiving the UA C&S test results on 3/19/26 (which indicated the resident’s urine sample was likely contaminated and required recollection (see C&S test results above). Please check urinalysis for dysuria on 3/20/26, ordered 3/10/26 at 11:58 a.m.. Review of Resident #72’s March 2026 medication administration record (MAR) revealed the resident received two doses of Macrobid 100 mg (on 3/18/26 at 8:00 p.m. and 3/19/26 at 8:00 a.m.). III. Resident #20 A. Resident statusResident #20, age 68, was admitted on 1/20/26. According to the 1/20/26 CPO, diagnoses included fusion of the spine, muscle weakness and spinal stenosis. The 1/26/26 MDS assessment revealed the resident was moderately cognitively impaired with a BIMS score of 11 out of 15. She required substantial maximum assistance with ADLs. B. Record reviewThe antibiotic use care plan, initiated 3/18/26, revealed Resident #20 had a UTI. Interventions included administering antibiotics per physician’s orders. Review of Resident #20’s UA laboratory results, dated 3/17/26 at 8:41 a.m. revealed the resident’s urine was positive for urine nitrites. -Review of Resident #20’s electronic medical record (EMR) revealed there were no laboratory results for the UA C&S. Review of Resident #20’s March 2026 CPO revealed the following physician’s orders:Macrobid 100 mg, give one tablet by mouth two times a day for five days for an uncomplicated UTI, ordered 3/17/26 at 9:47 a.m.-However, the physician’s order was obtained prior to the facility receiving the resident’s UA C&S test results. -A second review of Resident #20’s EMR on 3/19/26 revealed a physician's order to discontinue the Macrobid medication, ordered 3/19/26 at 12:59 p.m., following the interview with the director of nursing (DON) regarding antibiotic stewardship (see interview below). Review of Resident #20’s March 2026 MAR revealed the resident received five dose of Macrobid 100 mg (on 3/17/26 at bedtime, on 3/18/26 in the morning and at bedtime and on 3/19/26 in the morning). IV. Resident #60 A. Resident statusResident #60, age greater than 65, was admitted on 3/6/26. According to the March 2026 CPO, diagnoses included displaced femur fracture, unspecified fall, hypertension and acute kidney failure. The 3/13/26 MDS assessment revealed the resident was moderately cognitively impaired with a BIMS score of 11 out of 15. She required maximum assistance with ADLs. B. Record reviewThe antibiotic use care plan, initiated 3/18/26, revealed Resident #60 had a UTI. Interventions included administering antibiotics per physician’s orders. Review of Resident #60’s UA laboratory results, dated 3/17/26 at 8:47 a.m. revealed the resident’s urine was positive for leukocytes. -Review of Resident #60’s EMR revealed there were no laboratory results for the UA C&S. Review of Resident #60’s March 2026 CPO revealed the following physician’s order:Cefuroxime Axetil (antibiotic) 250 mg, give one tablet two times a day for five days for a UTI, ordered 3/17/26 at 7:00 p.m. Review of Resident #60’s March 2026 MAR revealed the resident received five doses of Macrobid 100 mg (on 3/17/26 at bedtime, on 3/18/26 in the morning and at bedtime and on 3/19/26 in the morning). V. Staff interview The director of nursing (DON) was interviewed on 3/19/26 at 11:10 a.m. The DON said nine residents in the facility were currently being treated with antibiotics. She said three of the residents were on antibiotics for urinary tract infections. She said Resident #20 had exhibited signs of pain and urinary frequency, so the physician had ordered an antibiotic for the resident before the C&S results were back. The DON said Resident # 72 reported to the physician that she felt like she had a UTI, so the physician ordered antibiotics. The DON was reading the physician notes during the interview, and said it indicated there were no white blood cells in the urinalysis for Resident #72. The DON said Resident #60 acquired a UTI at the facilityand had symptoms of urinary frequency and hallucinations. She said no culture or sensitivity test results had been reported to her prior or during the interview for Residents #20, Resident #60 and Resident #72. The DON said she would expect the C&S results to come back before starting residents on antibiotics. She said the physician had been with the facility for over a year and was still learning. VI. Facility follow-upAn email sent by the medical records director on 3/19/26 at 1:44 p.m. revealed no final culture and sensitivity results were back from the laboratory yet for Resident #20 and #60. On 3/19/26 at 3:33 p.m. the medical records director sent an email which contained Risk Versus Benefit Time Out Sheets (clinical tool or checklist used to reassess antibiotic therapy) for Resident #72, Resident #20 and Resident #60. The documentation revealed the following:Review of Resident #72’s Risk Versus Benefit Time Out Sheet, dated 3/19/26, revealed the resident did not meet McGeer’s (standardized surveillance definitions used to identify and track infections) or Loeb’s criteria (an established minimum set of signs and symptoms to be met for initiation of antibiotics in long-term care facilities) and may be considered unnecessary medication. The document indicated the resident had a history of urinary tract infections with confusion. However, the risk of discontinuing the antibiotics did not outweigh the benefits of the medication.-However, the resident received two doses of antibiotics prior to the facility receiving the UA C&S back and the results of the C&S when obtained on 3/19/26 indicated the resident’s urine sample had been contaminated and a recollection of the urine was recommended for testing (see record review above).-Additionally, the document indicated the resident did not meet McGeer’s or Loeb’s criteria for initiating antibiotics. Review of Resident #20’s antibiotic Risk Versus Benefit Time Out Sheet, dated 3/19/26, revealed the resident did not meet McGeer’s or Loeb’s criteria and may be considered unnecessary medication. The document indicated discontinuing the medication may lead to an increase in potential or complications for sepsis. However, the facility notified the resident and discontinued the antibiotic. The facility would continue to monitor the resident and wait for the UA C&S results. Review of Resident #60’s antibiotic Risk Versus Benefit time Out Sheet, dated 3/19/26, revealed the resident did not meet McGeer’s or Loeb’s criteria and may be considered unnecessary medication. The document indicated the resident was confused and a high fall risk, but the confusion was clearing. The medication would be continued until the C&S results were obtained. -However, the document indicated the resident did not meet McGeer’s or Loeb’s criteria for initiating antibiotics.
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
F881 Infection Prevention and Control – Antibiotic Stewardship ProgramPreparation and execution of this response and plan of correction does not constitute an admission of agreement by theprovider of the truth of the facts alleged or conclusions set forth in the statement of deficiencies. The plan of correction is prepared and executed solely because it is requested by the provision of the state and federal law. For the purpose of any allegation the facility is not in substantial compliance with Federal requirements of participation, this response and plan of correction constitute the facility’s allegation of compliance in accordance with the State Operations Manual. I. Immediate Corrective Action for Identified PatientsPatients #20 was discharged from the facility on 03/19/2026. Patients #60 and #72 were reviewed regarding antibiotic use while culture and sensitivity results were pending. Providers were notified as needed to clarify orders and documentation, and treatment was continued or adjusted per provider orders. II. Identification of Other Patients Who May Be AffectedA review was conducted to determine whether other patients were affected by the alleged deficient practice. This included evaluation of current patients receiving antibiotic therapy to confirm appropriate collection and use of urine culture and sensitivity testing when clinically indicated. Based on this review, no patients were identified as requiring a culture and sensitivity. III. Systemic Changes Implemented to Prevent RecurrenceBy the date of compliance, the Director of Nursing (DON) or designee will complete an in-service to nursing staff to ensure that antibiotics were not ordered or administered prior to receiving culture and sensitivity. In addition, the facility reinforced its Antibiotic Stewardship to ensure appropriate antibiotic use and documentation to include Standardized antibiotic initiation checklist requiring documentation of clinical indication aligned with Loeb and McGreer criteria as applicable, culture and sensitivity collection completed when clinical indicated, Antibiotic time-out process completed at 48-72 hours, and interdisciplinary collaboration between nursing, infection preventionist, pharmacy, and providers. IV. Monitoring Process to Ensure Continued ComplianceDirector of Nursing (DON) or designee will monitor antibiotic use to ensure compliance per protocol. Audits will be completed weekly for four weeks then monthly audits for three months. Audits will be documented on a monitoring log created by the Director of Nursing or Designee. Results of the audit findings will be reviewed by the Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI) committee monthly. The QAPI committee will review the audits to determine if any changes to the above plan are needed and will do so until substantial compliance is achieved and sustained. Compliance Date: April 13, 2026
3/19/2026Licensure Complaint, Re-Licensure Survey · ID 1F32F0-H11 deficiency▼
0000Initial CommentsSurveyor note▼
Findings
A licensure survey with #CO2730264 was completed on 3/16/26 to 3/19/26. One deficiency was cited.
Plan of correction
The state did not require a plan of correction for this citation.
0716Resident Care - Resident Assessment▼
Findings
Findings include:I. Facility policy and procedure The Self-Administration of Medication policy, revised 2/8/23, was received from the medical records director on 3/19/26 at 11:02 a.m. The policy read, “Residents have the right to self-administer medications if the interdisciplinary team (IDT) has determined that it is clinically appropriate and safe for the resident to do so.“As part of their overall evaluation, the nursing staff will assess each resident's mental and physical abilities to determine whether self-administering medications is clinically appropriate for the resident. “In addition to general evaluation of decision -making capacity, the nursing staff will perform a more specific skill assessment, including (but not limited to) the residents:-Ability to read and understand medication labels;-Comprehension of the purpose and proper dosage and administration time fo his or her medications;-Ability to remove medicine from a container and to ingest and swallow (or otherwise administer) the medications; and, -Ability to recognize the risks and major adverse consequences of his or her medications.“The nursing staff will document their findings and the choices of residents who are able to self-administer medication.”II. Resident #1A. Resident statusResident #1, age 76, was admitted on 2/3/26. According to the March 2026 computerized physician orders (CPO), diagnoses included hemiplegia and hemiparesis (hemiparesis is characterized by partial muscle weakness or reduced coordination, whereas hemiplegia is defined by total paralysis or complete loss of movement on that side), following a cerebral infarction, aphasia, acute respiratory failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and atrial fibrillation (the most common type of irregular heart rhythm). The 2/10/26 comprehensive assessment revealed the resident was moderately cognitively impaired. He required maximum assistance with activities of daily living (ADL). B. Observations On 3/16/26 at 3:30 p.m. a container of Voltaren medication (a topical pain medication) was observed on Resident #1’s bedside table. On 3/17/26 at 10:11 a.m. a container of Voltaren medication was observed on Resident #1’s bedside table. On 3/18/26 at 12:15 p.m. a container of Voltaren medication was observed on Resident #1’s bedside table. C. Resident interviewResident #1 was interviewed on 3/18/26 at 12:26 p.m. Resident #1 said his wife assisted him to administer the Voltaren cream medication to himself when needed. He said he kept the cream at his bedside. D. Record reviewThe self-administration of medications care plan, initiated 2/10/26, revealed Resident #1 could self-administer Biotene Dry Mouth Moist Spray Mouth/Throat solution per physician’s orders. Interventions included assessing/monitoring the resident’s ability to self-administer medications, monitoring the residents’ self-administration frequently and obtaining an order from the physician to self-administer medication. -However, the care plan failed to indicate Resident #1 was able to self-administer Voltaren cream. A self-administration of medications assessment, dated 2/17/26, documented Resident #1 was able to self-administer two medications, fluticasone, and nasal suspension. -The self-administration assessment failed to indicate the resident had been assessed to self-administer Voltaren cream. -A review of Resident #1's March 2026 CPO on 3/17/26 did not reveal a physician's order for Voltaren cream nor a physician’s order for self-administration of Voltaren cream. A second review of Resident #1’s March 2026 CPO on 3/19/26 revealed the following physician’s order: Patient may have Voltaren, fluticasone and Biotene at bedside for self-administration, ordered 3/19/26 at 8:31 a.m.. -However, the physician’s order was not obtained until after the concern was identified during the survey. III. Resident #40A. Resident status Resident #40, age 68, was admitted on 3/9/26. According to the March 2026 CPO, diagnoses included chronicobstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The 3/13/26 comprehensive assessment revealed the resident was cognitively intact. She required maximum assistance with ADLs. B. Resident observations and interviewOn 3/17/26 at 8:40 a.m. an albuterol inhaler and Ayr nasal gel medication were observed on Resident #40’s bedside table. The albuterol inhaler was in reach for her to use. Resident #40 said she had had the albuterol inhaler next to her since she was admitted to the facility because she had trouble breathing and used the medication frequently. On 3/18/26 at 9:35 a.m. an albuterol inhaler and Ayr nasal gel medication remained on Resident #40’s bedside table. The albuterol inhaler was in reach for her to use. C. Record review -Review of Resident #40’s electronic medical record (EMR) failed to reveal a self-administration of medications care plan, a physician’s order to self-administer the albuterol inhaler and Ayr nasal gel, or that a self-administration of medications assessment had been completed to determine if the resident was clinically appropriate to self administer medications. IV. Resident #28A. Resident statusResident #28, age 75, was admitted on 12/22/25. According to the March 2026 CPO, diagnoses included arthritis, type 2 diabetes, hypertension, edema and pulmonary disease. The 12/29/25 comprehensive assessment revealed the resident was moderately cognitively impaired. She required maximum assistance with ADLs. B. Resident observations and interviewOn 3/16/26 at 4:05 p.m. saline nasal spray and Ayr nasal gel medications were observed on Resident #28’s bedside table. On 3/17/26 at 10:02 a.m. saline nasal spray and Ayr nasal gel medications were observed on Resident #28’s bedside table. Resident #28 said she used the nasal spray and the nasal gel to keep her airway open due to the dryness in the facility. She said she used the medication at home and told the nurse she wanted the medication next to her. On 3/18/26 at 11:43 a.m. the saline nasal spray and Ayr nasal gel medications remained on Resident #28’s bedside table. C. Record review -Review of Resident #28’s electronic medical record (EMR) failed to reveal a self-administration of medications care plan, a physician’s order to self-administer the Ayr nasal gel and saline nasal spray, or that a self-administration of medications assessment had been completed to determine if the resident was clinically appropriate to self administer medications. V. Resident #15A. Resident statusResident #15, age 73, was admitted on 2/26/26. According to the March 2026 CPO, diagnoses included femur fracture and hypertension. The 3/3/26 comprehensive assessment revealed the resident was moderately cognitively impaired. She required maximum assistance with ADLs. B. Resident observations and interviewOn 3/18/26 at 8:51 a.m. a bottle of AlgaeCal (a plant-based calcium supplement designed to support bone health) was observed on Resident #15’s bedside table. On 3/19/26 at 9:08 a.m. the bottle of AlgaeCal remained on Resident #15’s bedside table. Resident #15 was interviewed on 3/19/26 at 9:08 a.m., she said she wanted the AlgaeCal left at her bedside because she took the supplement with her meals. She said the bottle of AlgaeCal was labeled with her name and the facility knew she had the medications next to her. C. Record reviewThe self-administration of medications care plan, initiated 3/17/26 (during the survey), revealed Resident #15 could self-administer medications per physician’s orders. Interventions included assessing/monitoring the resident’s ability to self-administer medications, monitoring the residents’ self-administration frequently and obtaining an order from the physician to self-administer medication.-However, the care plan failed to specify what medications the resident was able to self-administer. Review of Resident #15’s March 2026 CPO revealed the following physician’s order:Patient may self-administer and keep medications at bedside two times a day for vitamin deficiency. -However,the physician’s order failed to specify which medication Resident #15 was able to keep at her bedside.-Review of Resident #15’s EMR failed to reveal that a self-administration of medications assessment had been completed to determine if the resident was clinically appropriate to self administer medications. VI. Staff interviews Licensed practical nurse (LPN) #1 was interviewed on 3/18/26 at 4:30 p.m. LPN #1 said medications left at the residents’ bedsides needed to have a physician's order and an assessment had to be completed for safe administration. Registered nurse (RN) #1 was interviewed on 3/18/26 at 12:35pm. RN #1 said in order to have medications left at residents’ edsides, a physician's order needed to be obtained and an assessment for safety of self-administration of medications had to be completed. The director of nursing (DON) was interviewed on 3/19/26 at 10:25 a.m. The DON said the residents often asked to have their own medications at their bedside. She said the process for residents to be able to keep medications at their bedside was to obtain a physician’s order and to complete a self-administration medication assessment for evaluation of safe administration. VII. Facility follow-upOn 3/18/26 at 4:30 p.m. the medical records director provided the following information via email:For Resident #1:Resident #1’s self-administration of medications care plan was revised on 3/18/26 to include the self-administration of fluticasone propionate nasal suspension per physician’s orders.-However, the care plan was not updated until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). -Additionally, the 3/18/26 revised care plan failed to include the self-administration of Voltaren cream, which was the medication observed at the resident’s bedside on 3/16/26, 3/17/26 and 3/18/26 (see observations above).-There was no documentation provided by the medical records director to indicate that a self-administration assessment was completed to include the self-administration of Voltaren cream. For Resident #28:A self-administration of medications was care plan was initiated on 3/18/26 (during the survey) and indicated Resident #28 could self-administer medications per physician’s orders. Interventions included completing a self-administration evaluation to ensure the resident was able to self-administer medications safely, assessing/monitoring the resident’s ability to self-administer medications, monitoring the residents’ self-administration frequently and obtaining an order from the physician to self-administer medication.-However, the care plan failed to specify what medications the resident was able to self-administer. -Additionally, the care plan was not initiated until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). The following physician’s order was obtained for Resident #28:Okay to keep Ayr nasal gel and saline nasal spray at bedside, ordered 3/18/26 at 4:01 p.m. (during the survey).-However, the physician’s order was not obtained until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). A self-administration assessment was completed by the DON on 3/18/26 at 4:05 p.m. (during the survey). The assessment indicated Resident #40 was able to self-administer her albuterol inhaler.-However, the self-administration assessment was not completed until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). For Resident #15:A self-administration assessment was completed by the DON on 3/18/26 at 2:26 p.m. (during the survey). The assessment indicated Resident #15 was able to self-administer AlgaeCal two times daily. -However, the self-administration assessment was not completed until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). On 3/23/26 at 6:28 p.m. (after the survey exit) RN #2 provided the following information via email:For Resident #40:A self-administration of medications was care plan was initiated on 3/19/26 (during the survey) and indicated Resident #40 could self-administer medications per physician’s orders. Interventions included completing a self-administration evaluation to ensure the resident was able to self-administer medications safely, assessing/monitoring the resident’s ability to self-administer medications, monitoring the residents’ self-administration frequently and obtaining an order from the physician to self-administer medication.-However, the care plan failed to specify what medications the resident was able to self-administer. -Additionally, the care plan was not initiated until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). The following physician’s order was obtained for Resident #40:Okay to have albuterol inhaler at bedside for self-administration, ordered 3/19/26 at 8:32 a.m. (during the survey).-However, the physician’s order was not obtained until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above). A self-administration assessment was completed by the DON on 3/19/26 at 8:33 a.m. (during the survey). The assessment indicated Resident #40 was able to self-administer her albuterol inhaler.-However, the self-administration assessment was not completed until the concern was brought to the facility’s attention during the survey (see record review above).-There was no documentation provided by RN #2 to indicate that a physician’s order had been obtained and a self-assessment had been completed to determine if Resident #40 was clinically appropriate to administer the Ayr nasal gel medication observed at the resident’s bedside on 3/17/26 and 3/18/26 (see observations above).
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
F554 Resident Self-Administration of MedicationsPreparation and execution of this response and plan of correction does not constitute an admission of agreement by the provider of the truth of the facts alleged or conclusions set forth in the statement of deficiencies. The plan of correction is prepared and executed solely because it is requested by the provision of the state and federal law. For the purpose of any allegation the facility is not in substantial compliance with Federal requirements of participation, this response and plan of correction constitute the facility’s allegation of compliance in accordance with the State Operations Manual. I. Immediate Corrective Action for Identified PatientsPatients #15 and #28 were discharged from the facility on 03/19/2026 and 3/21/2026, respectively. Patients #1 and #40, a licensed nurse completed the required evaluation to determine appropriateness of self-administration, provider orders were obtained, and care plan interventions were implemented to ensure compliance with CMS requirements and support safe medication practices. II. Identification of Other Patients Who May Be AffectedAn audit was completed for current patients completed to identify any additional individuals with self-administering medications. The audit included verification of a completed nursing evaluation, provider order, and individualized care plan reflecting self-administration. During the audit, two patients were identified to be affected by the deficient practice and were immediately corrected. III. Systemic Changes Implemented to Prevent RecurrenceBy the compliance date, an in-service will be conducted by the Director of Nursing (DON) or designee for licensed nursing staff to ensure that any patients who prefer to self-administer their medication are properly assessed to determine whether they are clinically appropriate to do so. Specifically, the licensed nurse completes and documents clinical evaluation determining appropriateness, obtain a physician/provider order for self medication administration, complete, an individualized care plan intervention, and ensure that medications stored securely in the patient’s room. A checklist was developed and incorporated into the admission and ongoing evaluation process to ensure all required elements are completed prior to initiation. The DON/designee will validate compliance prior to approval of any patient self-administration. IV. Monitoring Process to Ensure Continued ComplianceThe DON/designee will conduct audits of all the patients self-administering medications and to ensure that protocol is being followed. Audits will be conducted weekly for 4 weeks and monthly for 2 months. Audits will be documented on a monitoring sheet created by the DON.Results of the audit findings will be reviewed monthly by the Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI) committee. The QAPI committee will review the audits to determine if any changes to the above plan are needed and will do so untilsubstantial compliance is achieved and sustained. Compliance Date: 04/13/2026
9/6/2024Complaint Survey · ID Z4DT11No deficiencies▼
0000INITIAL COMMENTSSurveyor note▼
Findings
A complaint survey, prompted by #CO37242 was conducted on 9/4/24 to 9/6/24. No deficiencies were cited.
Plan of correction
The state did not require a plan of correction for this citation.
6/27/2024Revisit: Recertification Survey · ID 993Q22No deficiencies▼
0000INITIAL COMMENTSSurveyor note▼
Findings
A document revisit was completed with all deficiencies being corrected. No other deficiencies were cited and no response is needed.
Plan of correction
The state did not require a plan of correction for this citation.
6/18/2024Revisit: Recertification Survey · ID 993Q12No deficiencies▼
0000Initial CommentsSurveyor note▼
Findings
A revisit survey was completed on 6/18/24 for all previous deficiencies cited on 4/30/24. The facility is in compliance with all regulations surveyed.
Plan of correction
The state did not require a plan of correction for this citation.
5/9/2024Recertification Survey · ID 993Q215 deficiencies▼
0000INITIAL COMMENTSSurveyor note▼
Findings
INITIAL COMMENTS (ID Prefix Tag #K000) are informational only and a representation of the facility's general characteristics. This survey was conducted in accordance with the Federal Register at Section 42 CFR 483.70(a). The building is a three-story, Type II (111) construction without a basement, 53,820 square feet. The facility is divided into two smoke compartments on the first, second, and third floors. The facility is classified as fully protected by a National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 13 automatic sprinkler system. Emergency power is provided by a diesel-driven generator. The facility is equipped with a piped medical gas system in the first-level storage room. The facility is licensed for 54 beds, with the resident census on the day of the survey at 44. A recertification survey was completed on May 9, 2024. The facility was reviewed and surveyed according to the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Life Safety Code (2012) Chapter 18, New Health Care Occupancies; NFPA 99 Health Care Facilities Code (2012); and all referenced standards. This facility will meet these requirements upon completion of a plan of correction. All deficiencies were discussed with the Facility Administrator and the Maintenance Director during the exit conference.
Plan of correction
The state did not require a plan of correction for this citation.
0321Hazardous Areas - EnclosureS/S F▼
Findings
Through observation during the survey, it was determined that the facility failed to meet the means of egress requirements in accordance with NFPA 101. This was evidenced by:1) The soiled linen room 136 needs to be repaired with fire caulking2) procedure room 161 needs a drywall patch to the 1-hour rated wall3) Need door closure on Salon deemed hazardous area due to the presence of flammable aerosols4) The corridor 158 rated wall needs to be patchedNFPA 10118.3.2.1* Hazardous Areas. Any hazardous areas shall be protected in accordance with Section 8.7, and the areas described in Table 18.3.2.1 shall be protected as indicated. NFPA 1014.5.8 Maintenance. Whenever or wherever any device, equipment, system, condition, arrangement, level of protection, or any other feature is required for compliance with the provisions of this Code, such device, equipment, system, condition, arrangement, level of protection, or other feature shall thereafter be maintained, unless the Code exempts such maintenance. This deficiency could affect occupants, including residents, staff, and visitors within the smoke compartment. Deficient items were discussed with the facility maintenance director during the exit conference.
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
0321 Hazardous Areas- EnclosuresThe facility will meet the means of egress requirements in accordance with NFPA 101. The soiled linen room 136 was repaired with fire caulking, a drywall patch to the 1-hour rated wall was placed in procedure room 161, and the corridor 158 rated wall was patched (Exhibit 6). The Maintenance Director completed a full house audit May 9th through May 17th, 2024 and no other issues were identified. The Maintenance Director or designee will complete Fire Barrier Inspection Audit on a quarterly basis to ensure compliance and report any issues/repairs to the QAPI committee for review and suggestions. The Maintenance Director will also monitor compliance during and after any construction/vendor work within the facility to identify any areas needing repair from work completed. A door closure was placed on the Salon door on May 17, 2024 (Exhibit 6B).
0324Cooking FacilitiesS/S D▼
Findings
Through observation during the survey, it was determined that the facility failed to meet the healthcare facilities code requirements in accordance with NFPA 101 and 54. This was evidenced by:1) kitchen appliances need cables and casters. 2) need coverage addressed for appliance and nozzle placement NFPA 101, 9.1.1 Gas. Equipment using gas and related gas piping shall be in accordance with NFPA 54, National Fuel Gas Code, or NFPA 58, Liquefied Petroleum Gas Code unless such installations are approved existing installations, which shall be permitted to be continued in service. NFPA 549.6.1.1 Commercial Cooking Appliances. Commercial cooking appliances that are moved for cleaning and sanitation purposes shall be connected in accordance with the connector manufacturer ' s installation instructions using a listed appliance connector complying with ANSI Z21.69/CSA 6.16, Connectors for Movable Gas Appliances. The commercial cooking appliance connection installation shall be configured in accordance with the manufacturer ' s installation instructions. 9.6.1.2 Restraint. Movement of appliances with casters shall be limited by a restraining device installed in accordance with the connector and appliance manufacturer ' s installation instructions. NFPA 101 9.7.3.1 In any occupancy where the character of the fuel for the fire is such that extinguishment or control of fire is accomplished by a type of automatic extinguishing system in lieu of an automatic sprinkler system, such system shall be installed in accordance with the appropriate standard, as determined in accordance with Table 9.7.3.1. Wet chemical systems NFPA 17A, Standard for Wet Chemical Extinguishing SystemsNFPA 17A 5.5 Discharge Nozzles. All discharge nozzles shall be located to minimize damage or misalignment and be within the limitations and constraints of the manufacturer ' s listed installation and maintenance manual. (See Section 4.3.)This deficiency could affect occupants, including residents, staff, and visitors within the smoke compartment. The deficient item was discussed with the facility maintenance director during the exit conference.
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
0324 Cooking FacilitiesThe facility will meet the code requirements in accordance with NFPA 101 and 54. The facility permanently installed the equipment with cables into the casters to provide needed coverage addressed for appliance and nozzle placement compliance (Exhibit 5). The dietary staff were educated on the proper location of equipment on or before 5/24/24 (Exhibit 5A). The Maintenance Director will monitor placement of equipment during kitchen inspections. Any issues identified will be corrected and reviewed by the QAPI Committee (Exhibit 5B).
0353Sprinkler System - Maintenance and TestingS/S F▼
Findings
Through document review and observation during the survey, it was determined that the facility failed to meet the protection requirements in accordance with NFPA 101 and 25. This was evidenced by:1) Fire sprinkler system needs to remove grounding cable from the fire sprinkler system 2) The fire sprinkler system is missing general information signageBased on a record review, it was determined that the facility failed to maintain the fire sprinkler system components and devices in accordance with the Life Safety Code Section 9.6 and NFPA 72. NFPA 101, 9.7.5 Maintenance and Testing. All automatic sprinkler and standpipe systems required by this Code shall be inspected, tested, and maintained in accordance with NFPA 25, Standard for the Inspection, Testing, and Maintenance of Water-Based Fire Protection Systems. NFPA 25, Chapter 5 Sprinkler SystemsTable 5.1.1.2 shall be used to determine the minimum required frequencies for inspection, testing, and maintenance. NFPA 25, Chapter 13 Common Components and ValvesTable 13.1.1.2 shall be used to determine the minimum required frequencies for inspection, testing, and maintenance. NFPA 25, 5.2 Inspection. 5.2.6* Hydraulic Design Information Sign. The hydraulic design information sign for hydraulically designed systems shall be inspected quarterly to verify that it is attached securely to the sprinkler riser and is legible. 5.2.8* Information Sign. The information sign shall be inspected annually to verify that it is securely attached and is legible. NFPA 13, 24.6 General Information Sign. 24.6.1 The installing contractor shall provide a general information sign used to determine system design basis and information relevant to the inspection, testing, and maintenance requirements required by NFPA 25, Standard for the Inspection, Testing, and Maintenance of Water-Based Fire Protection Systems. 24.6.1.1 Such general information shall be provided with a permanently marked weatherproof metal or rigid plastic sign secured with corrosion-resistant wire, chain, or other acceptable means. 24.6.1.2 Such signs shall be placed at each system control riser, antifreeze loop, and auxiliary system control valve. 24.6.2 The sign shall include the following information:(1) Name and location of the facility protected(2) Occupancy classification(3) Commodity classification(4) Presence of high-piled and/or rack storage(5) Maximum height of storage planned(6) Aisle width planned(7) Encapsulation of pallet loads(8) Presence of solid shelving(9) Flow test data(10) Presence of flammable/combustible liquids(11) Presence of hazardous materials(12) Presence of other special storage(13) Location of auxiliary drains and low point drains on dry-pipe and preaction systems(14) Original results of main drain flow test(15) Name of installing contractor or designer(16) Indication of presence and location of antifreeze or other auxiliary systemsNFPA 13 10.6.8* In no case shall the underground piping be used as a grounding electrode for electrical systems. This deficiency could affect occupants, including residents, staff, and visitors throughout the facility. The deficient item was discussed with the maintenance team at the exit conference.
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
0353 Sprinkler System- Maintenance and TestingThe facility will maintain compliance with NFPA 101 and 25. The bonding cable was removed on 5/15/24 (Exhibit 4). The fire sprinkler system general information signage was ordered on 5/21/24 and will be permanently installed before 5/31/24 (Exhibit 3).
0911Electrical Systems - OtherS/S D▼
Findings
Through observation during the survey, it was determined that the facility failed to meet the protection requirements in accordance with NFPA 101, 99, and 110. This was evidenced by:1) The emergency generator needs battery-powered lightingNFPA 9915.5.1.3 Emergency Generators and Standby Power Systems. Emergency generators and standby power systems, where required for compliance with this code, shall be installed, tested, and maintained in accordance with NFPA 110, Standard for Emergency and Standby Power Systems. NFPA 1107.3.1 The Level 1 or Level 2 EPS equipment location(s) shall be provided with battery-powered emergency lighting. This requirement shall not apply to units located outdoors in enclosures that do not include walk-in access. This deficiency could affect occupants, including residents, staff, and visitors within the entire facility. The deficient item was discussed with the maintenance team at the exit conference.
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
0911 Electrical Systems- OtherThe facility will meet the protection requirements in accordance with NFPA 101, 99, and 110. The emergency generators and standby power systems, where required for compliance with this code, shall be tested and maintained in accordance with NFPA 110, Standard for Emergency and Standby Power Systems. The facility will test the backup light on a monthly basis (Exhibit 2B). Results of the testing will be submitted to the QAPI Committee every month until continual compliance has been sustained. The facility battery powered emergency lighting was repaired on 5/17/24 and is in working condition (Exhibit 2A).
0914Electrical Systems - Maintenance and TestingS/S F▼
Findings
Through document review during the survey, it was determined that the facility failed to meet the means of egress requirements in accordance with NFPA 99. This was evidenced by:1) Receptacle Testing (99 6.3.4.1): Not ProvidedNFPA 996.3.4.1.1Where hospital-grade receptacles are required at patient bed locations and in locations where deep sedation or general anesthesia is administered, testing shall be performed after initial installation, replacement, or servicing of the device. 6.3.4.1.2Additional testing of receptacles in patient care rooms shall be performed at intervals defined by documented performance data. 6.3.4.1.3Receptacles not listed as hospital-grade at patient bed locations and in locations where deep sedation or general anesthesia is administered shall be tested at intervals not exceeding 12 months. NFPA 996.3.4.2 Record Keeping. 6.3.4.2.1* General. 6.3.4.2.1.1 A record shall be maintained of the tests required by this chapter and associated repairs or modifications. 6.3.4.2.1.2 At a minimum, the record shall contain the date, the rooms or areas tested, and an indication of which items have met, or have failed to meet, the performance requirements of this chapter. This deficiency could affect occupants, including residents, staff, and visitors within the entire facility. The deficient item was discussed with the maintenance team at the exit conference.
Plan of correction · submitted by the facility
0914 Electrical Systems- Maintenance and TestingThe facility will continue to monitor outlets in accordance to 6.3.4 (NFPA 99). Testing of outlets was emailed to surveyor on 5/10/24, but the 2786 had already been submitted. The facility will continue to utilize current inspection audit tool (Exhibit 1). The Maintenance Director will submit evidence of testing to the QAPI committee to ensure compliance.
4/30/2024Recertification Survey · ID 993Q112 deficiencies▼
0000Initial CommentsSurveyor note2 building records▼
Findings · record 1 of 2
A recertification survey was conducted from 4/24/24 to 4/30/24. Two deficiencies were cited.
Findings · record 2 of 2
An Emergency Preparedness survey was conducted from 4/24/24 to 4/30/24. No deficiencies were cited.
Plan of correction
The state did not require a plan of correction for this citation.
0684Quality of CareS/S D▼
Findings
Based on observation and interviews, the facility failed to ensure residents received professional standards of care for one (#18) of one resident reviewed for edema care out of 28 sample residents. Specifically, the facility failed to appropriately notify the provider of significant weight changes for Resident #18. Findings include:I. Facility policy The Edema policy, revised March 2024, was provided by the nursing home administrator (NHA). on 4/30/24 at 1:54 p.m.. It documented in pertinent part, "Nurses are to obtain daily weights if ordered by the provider, and nurses are to notify the provider with any changes in edema." The Weight Loss and Interventions policy, revised March 2024,was provided by the NHA on 4/30/24 at 1:54 p.m. It documented in pertinent part, "Nursing staff measures residents' weights on admission and then the next day or as ordered by physician, nurse practitioner, or dietician."III. Resident #18A. Resident StatusResident #18, over the age of 65, was admitted on 2/2/24. According to the April 2024 computerized physician order (CPO), diagnoses included takotsubo' s syndrome (a temporary irregular heart shape and function), heart failure, and lymphedema (a swelling of a portion of the body). According to the 2/9/24 minimum data set (MDS) assessment, Resident #18 was cognitively intact with a brief interview for mental status (BIMS) score of 15 out of 15. The MDS assessment documented the resident was 63 inches (five feet three inches) and 297 pounds (lbs). The MDS assessment did not indicate the resident had any weight changes. B. Record reviewThe 2/26/24 care plan failed to document the resident's edema. The care plan identified interventions for fluid imbalance deficit risk because the resident was receiving diuretics. -However, daily weights were not included in these documented interventions. According to the April 2024 CPO, Resident #18 had an order to weigh the resident daily, and to notify the provider if the resident had a three lb weight change in 24 hours or a five pound weight change in seven days, ordered 2/3/24. Resident #18' s weights were documented in the electronic medical record (EMR) as follows:On 2/7/24, the resident weighed 298.6 lbs, which indicated she had lost 3.0 lbs in one day. -A review of the resident' s EMR did not reveal documentation indicating the physician was notified of the weight change on 2/7/24. On 2/11/24, the resident weighed 301.4 lbs, which indicated she had gained 3.4 lbs in one day. -A review of the resident' s EMR did not reveal documentation indicating the physician was notified of the weight change on 2/11/24. On 2/13/24 the resident weighed 298.6 lbs, which indicated she had gained 4.0 pounds in one day. -A review of the resident' s EMR did not reveal documentation indicating the physician was notified of the weight change on 2/13/24. On 2/15/24, the resident weighed 299.8 lbs, which indicated she had lost 6.0 pounds in two days. -A review of the resident' s EMR did not reveal documentation indicating the physician was notified of the weight change on 2/15/24. On 3/5/24, the resident weighed 301.6 lbs, which indicated she had gained 11.2 pounds in one day. -A review of the resident' s EMR did not reveal documentation indicating the physician was notified of the weight change on 3/5/24. On 3/6/24, the resident weighed 290.6 lbs, which indicated she had lost 11.0 pounds in one day. -A review of the resident' s EMR did not reveal documentation indicating the physician was notified of the weight change on 3/6/24. On 3/20/24, the resident weighed 298.2 lbs, which indicated she had gained 6.8 pounds in one day. -A review of the resident' s EMR did not reveal documentation indicating the physician was notified of the weight change on 3/20/24. On 3/30/24, the resident weighed 291.9 lbs, which indicated she had lost 5.7 pounds in one day. -A review of the resident' s EMR did not reveal documentation indicating the physician was notified of the weight change on 3/30/24On 4/2/24, the resident weighed 299.4 lbs, which indicated she had gained 7.5 pounds in three days. -A review of the resident' s EMR did not reveal documentation indicating the physician was notified of the weight change on 4/2/24. On 4/3/24, the resident weighed 296.4 lbs, which indicated she had lost 3.0 pounds in one day.-A review of the resident' s EMR did not reveal documentation indicating the physician was notified of the weight change on 4/3/24. On 4/28/24, the resident weighed 299.4 lbs, which indicated she had gained 4.2 pounds in one day.-A review of the resident' s EMR did not reveal documentation indicating the physician was notified of the weight change on 4/28/24. IV. Staff interviewsCertified nursing aide (CNA) #1 was interviewed on 4/29/24 at 11:12 a.m. CNA #1 said Resident #18 needed to be weighed daily. CNA #1 said obtaining a consistent weight for Resident #18 had been difficult for the nursing team because of variations in the process of weighing residents among nursing staff. CNA #1 said if the nursing staff believed a weight was inaccurate the resident would be re-weighed that day or the next day. Registered nurse (RN) #2 was interviewed on 4/29/24 at 11:28 a.m. RN #2 said when a provider was notified of a weight change it was documented in the resident' s EMR.The registered dietitian (RD) was interviewed on 4/29/24 at 1:31 p.m. The RD said she was responsible for monitoring residents' weights. The RD said it was normal to weigh residents with edema daily. The RD said she was not aware Resident #18 had significant weight fluctuations in February 2024, March 2024 and April 2024. The RD said all provider orders should be followed. The RD did not know if a provider was notified for any of the significant weight changes documented in February 2024, March 2024 and April 2024. The RD said provider notification of weight changes should be documented in the progress notes section of the EMR.The director of nursing (DON) was interviewed on 4/30/24 at 3:38 p.m. The DON said all provider orders should be followed. The DON said she reviewed the documented weight changes for Resident #18 and the provider orders for Resident #18 for February 2024, March 2024 and April 2024. The DON said the provider should have been notified many times because the resident had significant weight changes in February 2024, March 2024 and April 2024. She said did not know if the provider had been notified for the significant weight changes.. The DON said she was unable to find documentation indicating the provider had been notified of the resident's weight changes.
Plan of correction
The state did not require a plan of correction for this citation.
0847Entering into Binding Arbitration AgreementsS/S E▼
Findings
Based on record review and interviews, the facility failed to ensure residents or their representative were aware of the nature and implications of the facility's arbitration agreement to inform their decision on whether or not to enter into such agreements for five (#10, #38, #96, #194 and #198) of six residents out of 28 sample residents. Specifically, the facility failed to:-Thoroughly explain the arbitration agreement in a form and in a manner the residents and/or resident representatives understood the agreement before signing the arbitration agreement;-Accurately inform residents the arbitration agreement was a binding agreement before the agreement was signed; -Accurately inform residents the agreement could be rescinded by written notice within 90 days of the signing of the agreement; and, -Ensure staff reviewing the arbitration agreement with residents and the residents' representatives understood the components of the agreement. Findings include:I. The arbitration agreementThe Dispute Resolution and Arbitration Agreement, undated, was provided by the nursing home administrator (NHA) on 4/24/24 at 8:57 a.m. via email. The agreement read in part: "Arbitration is a method of resolving disputes outside of the court system. Each party may be represented by his own lawyer if desired, but arbitration cases are decided by an arbitrator, rather than by a judge or jury. "The parties agree that any legal dispute, controversy, demand or claim shall be resolved exclusively by binding arbitration."This arbitration agreement may be rescinded by written notice to the facility from you within 90 days as set forth below. This agreement is signed in contemplation of admission to the facility, not to a hospital even if the patient later goes to the hospital for any reason. If not rescinded, this arbitration agreement shall remain in effect even if you are sent to the hospital and return to the facility."Note: By signing this agreement you are agreeing to have any issue of medical malpractice decided by a neutral binding arbitration rather than by a jury or court trial. You have the right to seek legal counsel and you have the right to rescind this agreement within 90 days from the date of signature by both parties unless the agreement was signed in contemplation of hospitalization in which you have 90 days after discharge or released from the hospital to rescind the agreement. No healthcare provider shall withhold the provision of emergency medical services to any person because of that person's failure or refusal to sign an agreement containing a provision for binding arbitration of any dispute arising as to professional negligence of the provider. No healthcare provider shall refuse to provide medical care services to any patient solely because such patient refused to sign such an agreement or exercise the 90 day right of rescission." II. Explanation of arbitration to the residentsAdmissions coordinator (AC) #1 and AC #2 were interviewed on 4/25/24 at 4:14 p.m. AC #1 said during the admission process she told residents the arbitration agreement stated if there were any issues with care at the facility, staff wanted to have the opportunity to correct the concern before it went to legal matters. She said she had not told the residents they could rescind after signing the agreement or given them a timeline for when the residents could rescind the agreement because she was not aware it was a needed option. She said the question had never come up because the arbitration agreement was not a binding agreement. She said there was nothing binding. "She said the facility wanted to try to take care of issues here at the facility. She said the residents could rescind the agreement anytime the resident wanted to. She said if the resident requested a copy she would provide it for them at the time of the admission or the resident could request a copy of the arbitration agreement from medical records. AC #2 said she did not tell residents anything different then what AC #1 said above. AC #2 said she did not inform the residents of a timeline they could rescind the agreement if they signed it. AC #2 said she had been in her position for the past two years and had only one resident that she could recall choosing not to sign the arbitration agreement. She said she offered the residents a copy of the agreement but most residents said they did not want a copy. III. Resident group interviewA group interview was conducted on 4/29/24 at 10:30 a.m. with Resident #10, Resident #38, Resident #194, Resident #195 and Resident #198. The residents were deemed alert and oriented by the facility assessment . Arbitration and the arbitration agreement was reviewed with the residents. Resident #10 said she signed so much paperwork and was on so much pain medication when she was first admitted she was having a hard time paying attention during the admission process. She believed she was told arbitration was available if she needed it. She said did not know if she signed the arbitration agreement or not. She said she did not think she was told a timeline for when she could change her mind if she signed the agreement. Resident #198 said he signed the arbitration agreement but was not told he could change his mind as long as he rescinded the agreement within a certain number of days. He said he was not sure if he got a copy of the agreement. Resident #38 said when she was signing all the facility paperwork, she was highly medicated and in pain. She said she did not know what she was signing when she was admitted to the facility. Resident #194 said she remembered staff mentioning arbitration was available if she desired it or if she felt she needed it. She said there was nothing discussed about a timeline to rescind if she signed the agreement. IV. Record reviewThe facility admission packet was provided by the NHA on 4/24/24 at 8:57 a.m. via email. The admission packet included the binding arbitration agreement. Requested arbitration agreements were provided by the human resources director (HRD) on 4/29/24 at 4:15 p.m. The provided arbitration agreements were signed by either AC #1 or AC #2 as the facility representatives. The arbitration agreements were each signed by the resident. The arbitration agreements were reviewed for Resident #10, Resident #38, Resident #96, Resident #194 and Resident #198. Resident #10 was admitted on 3/18/24. The arbitration agreement was signed by AC #2 on 3/18/24. The arbitration agreement was signed by Resident #10 on 3/18/24. Resident #38 was admitted on 4/2/24. The arbitration agreement was signed by AC #1 on 4/2/24. The arbitration agreement was signed by Resident #38 on 4/2/24. Resident #96 was admitted on 4/22/24. The arbitration agreement was signed by AC #2 on 4/22/24. The arbitration agreement was signed by Resident #96 on 4/22/24. Resident #194 was admitted on 4/5/24. The arbitration agreement was signed by AC #1 on 4/11/24. The arbitration agreement was signed by Resident #194 on 4/11/24. Resident #198 was admitted on 4/24/24. The arbitration agreement was signed by AC #1 on 4/25/24. The arbitration agreement was signed by Resident #198 on 4/25/24. V. Additional resident interviewsResident #96 was interviewed on 4/29/24 at 2:06 p.m. Resident #96 said she did not know what arbitration was in reference to paper work she signed or how it pertained to her as a resident at the facility. She said she did not remember anyone talking to her about it or how long she had to change her mind if she signed the agreement. Resident #38 was interviewed again on 4/30/24 at 11:10 a.m. Resident #38 reviewed the paper work provided by the facility. She said she could not find anything from the facility on arbitration. Resident #38 said she did not know she signed an arbitration agreement. She said she would have wanted to know if she signed the binding agreement. She said it was okay with her that she signed the agreement but felt she should have been made more aware of it and told she had the option to change her mind and how long she had to decide if she wanted to keep the agreement in place. She said she did not remember signing the agreement. She said she just signed all the paperwork offered when she first admitted. She said she had just had surgery a couple of days before she was admitted to the facility and was not very lucid. Resident #38 said she would have wanted someone from the facility to explain the arbitration agreement to her when she felt more lucid. She said she felt that having her sign legal paperwork when she first admitted was the wrong time to give it to her. Resident #194 was interviewed again on 4/30/24 at 11:31 a.m. She said some of the other residents said they were in pain when they were asked to sign admission paperwork. She said when someone was in pain they were not thinking about anything but their discomfort. Resident #194 said she was not in pain when she signed all her paperwork but she was just focusing on the day to day unknown issues and what would happen next for her. She said she was not thinking about what she may have signed or the implications. IV. Staff interviewsAC #1 was interviewed again on 4/30/24 at 11:39 a.m. AC #1 said she had reviewed the arbitration agreement and was provided education on the agreement after the 4/25/24 interview. AC #1 said she was originally trained by AC #2 on the arbitration agreements. She said she offered to give the residents a copy of the agreement but was not going over all of the agreement with them. She said she was not aware the arbitration agreement was binding or the residents had only 90 days to rescind the agreement. She said her focus was to inform the residents the facility wanted to hear about any issues or concerns so the facility could attempt to correct the concerns. AC #1 said residents could sign their own admission paperwork, including the arbitration agreement, if the resident was alert and oriented and if their dominant hand was able to sign the forms. She said if residents were not able to sign the arbitration agreement electronically, she would print out the agreement and have them sign the hard paper copy. AC #1 said she usually had the residents sign all the paperwork right when they walked in the door. She said the admission process could be hectic at times. She said sometimes she might have the residents finish the paperwork on the second or third day after they were admitted to the facility, but she liked having them complete it as soon as they could. She said she told residents she could print off a copy of the arbitration agreement during the admission paperwork process or the resident could request a copy from medical records. She said she was now going to offer to send out the arbitration agreements to the residents and/or the residents' representative. The NHA was interviewed on 4/30/24 at 11:50 a.m. The NHA said the arbitration agreement was part of the facility' s admission packet. He said the arbitration agreement was not binding and the agreement was voluntary for signing. He said the residents who signed the non binding arbitration agreement could revoke the agreement at any time. The NHA reviewed the arbitration agreement and identified the agreement was binding after 90 days if the resident did not rescind the agreement. The NHA said she did to know some of the residents were not aware they signed the agreement and had not been informed of key components of the agreements by AC #1 and AC #2. She said she did not know some of the residents felt they had signed the agreement at a time they were not in an appropriate state of mind to make the decision to sign the agreement and/or retain the information contained in the agreement. The NHA said the HR director was more familiar with the arbitration process and used to be the staff member who reviewed the agreements with residents and/or their representatives. The HRD joined the interview at 12:05 p.m. The HRD said she had previously been responsible for presenting the arbitration agreement to the residents and/or the residents' representatives for the past five years. She said in October 2023, the admissions department started taking on more of that role. The HRD said when she would review the agreement with the residents she would ask the residents if they were willing to enter into an arbitration agreement. She said she would explain to the residents that if the facility was not able to make things right for them or meet their needs, the arbitration process was available to help resolve concerns outside of court. The HRD said she would tell the residents they were able to rescind the agreement at any point. She said if the residents asked about a timeline, she would get more clarification. The HRD said the facility started an education on arbitration after AC #1 was interviewed about the arbitration agreement and she wanted to have a better understanding of the agreement. The HRD was interviewed again on 4/30/24 at 12:24 p.m. The HRD said the facility would create additional education on the arbitration agreement in addition to the below Take Five education. V. Facility follow upA Take Five Quality Assurance Performance Improvement education was provided by the HRD on 4/30/24 at 12:24 p.m. The education was provided to AC #1, AC #2, the HRD and the medical records director on 4/29/24. The education topic was the arbitration agreement. The education highlighted the portion of the agreement that read: "Note: By signing this agreement you are agreeing to have any issue of medical malpractice decided by a neutral binding arbitration rather than by a jury or court trial. You have the right to seek legal counsel and you have the right to rescind this agreement within 90 days from the date of signature by both parties unless the agreement was signed in contemplation of hospitalization in which you have 90 days after discharge or released from the hospital to rescind the agreement. No healthcare provider shall withhold the provision of emergency medical services to any person because of that person's failure or refusal to sign an agreement containing a provision for binding arbitration of any dispute arising as to professional negligence of the provider. No healthcare provider shall refuse to provide medical care services to any patient solely because such patient refused to sign such an agreement or exercise the 90 day right of rescission."
Plan of correction
The state did not require a plan of correction for this citation.
9/28/2023Focused Infection Control, Other-Fed Survey · ID 7Z7D11No deficiencies▼
0000Initial CommentsSurveyor note2 building records▼
Findings · record 1 of 2
A focused infection control survey was conducted on 9/28/23. No deficiencies were cited.
Findings · record 2 of 2
An Emergency Preparedness focused infection control survey was conducted on 9/28/23. No deficiencies were cited.
Plan of correction
The state did not require a plan of correction for this citation.
6/26/2023Focused Infection Control, Other-Fed Survey · ID BH0W111 deficiency▼
0884Reporting - National Health Safety NetworkS/S F▼
Findings
Based on record review, the facility failed to report complete information about COVID-19 to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's (CDC) National Healthcare Safety Network (NHSN) during a seven-day period that reporting was required by regulation. The CDC submitted data from the NHSN to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). Based on review of that data, CMS determined that between 06/19/2023 and 06/25/2023, the facility did not report complete information to NHSN about COVID-19 in the standardized format and frequency as specified by CMS and the CDC. This failure to report has the potential to cause more than minimal harm to all residents residing in the facility.
Plan of correction
The state did not require a plan of correction for this citation.
Reportable Occurrences
6 records6/10/2026Brain Injury · ID 2602V727001Reported on time: Yes▼
Occurrence summary
SUMMARY OF FINDINGS:On 6/11/26, the healthcare entity investigated a reportable event. The facility acted appropriately to protect their clients by taking immediate protective actions, investigating the event, and implementing a plan to help prevent a future recurrence. The healthcare entity reported a brain injury event. Reportedly, client (A) suffered an unwitnessed fall with injuries. Nursing provided first aid treatment until client (A) was transferred to the hospital for an evaluation. Diagnostic test results revealed a brain bleed. During the course of the investigation, the healthcare entity conducted a post fall review, record review and interviews. In the hospital, client (A) stated they stood up to follow a bird and fell. The facility concluded the fall was accidental related to the clients underlying medical and cognitive status. Upon return to the facility, the interdisciplinary team planned to review and update the client's care plan and treatment plan based on hospital recommendations, nursing assessment findings, therapy evaluations, and any identified changes in functional or cognitive status. The event was substantiated. This public occurrence summary was provided in accordance with 25-1-124, C.R.S., and was based on the report and investigation provided by the licensed healthcare entity. Department investigation of this occurrence was conducted off-site. The healthcare entity occurrence report was submitted within the required timeframe.
Publication
Sent to facility 7/7/2026 · released to the public 7/14/2026.
6/15/2024Brain Injury · ID 2402V727004Reported on time: Yes▼
Occurrence summary
SUMMARY OF FINDINGS: On 6/17/24, the healthcare entity investigated a reportable event. The facility acted appropriately to protect their clients by taking immediate protective actions, investigating the event, and implementing a plan to prevent a future recurrence. The healthcare entity reported a brain injury event. During the course of the investigation, the healthcare entity reported client (B) had an unwitnessed fall on 6/15/24. He was transported to the hospital for an evaluation. Diagnostic test results showed an acute brain bleed without any reported neurological changes. Upon his return from the hospital, staff reassessed his safety needs and continued to monitor his medical condition for 72 hours. The event was substantiated. This public occurrence summary was provided in accordance with 25-1-124, C.R.S., and was based on the report and investigation provided by the licensed healthcare entity. Department investigation of this occurrence was conducted off-site. The healthcare entity occurrence report was submitted within the required timeframe.
Publication
Sent to facility 2/26/2025 · released to the public 3/5/2025.
5/27/2024Brain Injury · ID 2402V727003Reported on time: Yes▼
Occurrence summary
SUMMARY OF FINDINGS:On 5/29/24, the healthcare entity investigated a reportable event. The entity acted appropriately to protect their clients by taking immediate protective actions, investigating the event, and implementing a plan to help prevent a future recurrence. The healthcare entity reported a brain injury event involving client (A). During the course of the investigation, the healthcare entity conducted neurological monitoring on client (A) post a fall. Fall safety measures were reviewed and implemented. Two days post-fall, staff observed a change of condition with altered mental status. The client was transferred to the hospital for further evaluation. Diagnostic test results showed an acute brain bleed and the client was admitted to the hospital. A functional decline was reported, and the discharge plans were unknown. The event was substantiated that the client’s fall was unwitnessed and per the healthcare entity, staff followed the client's plan of care at the time of the fall. This public occurrence summary was provided in accordance with 25-1-124, C.R.S., and was based on the report and investigation provided by the licensed healthcare entity. Department investigation of this occurrence was conducted off-site. The healthcare entity occurrence report was submitted within the required timeframe.
Publication
Sent to facility 2/8/2025 · released to the public 2/15/2025.
2/18/2024Brain Injury · ID 2402V727002Reported on time: Yes▼
Occurrence summary
DESCRIPTION OF OCCURRENCE: On 2/18/24, a resident experienced an unwitnessed fall in her room. She reported she pushed her call light for assistance to the bathroom; however, she could not wait. She said her Foley catheter became caught on something and she was pulled down to the ground striking her head. She was transported to the hospital for further evaluation and it was discovered she had a brain bleed. AGENCY/FACILITY ACTION: The facility conducted an internal investigation and notified the physician and family/guardian. The resident was assessed by the registered nurse (RN) and provided first aid for a laceration to her right eyebrow. The record review showed the resident was returned to the facility at her baseline and with a diagnosis of a urinary tract infection (UTI). The record review showed that safety interventions were in place prior to the fall. The record review further showed the resident had been assessed upon admission to be alert, oriented, and used a walker for ambulation. She did not have any prior history of falls. The facility reported the resident was re-educated to call for assistance and signage was placed in her room to remind her to call to help prevent a recurrence.
DEPARTMENT FINDINGS: In accordance with Colorado Revised Statute 25-1-124, the Department conducted an off-site investigation of this reportable event submitted by the agency/facility. This public summary is based on information provided by the agency/facility to the Occurrence section of the Department. The provider reports the information submitted to the Department is accurate and complete. Prior to the next onsite investigation of the agency/facility, this occurrence will be reviewed by the State Agency. The occurrence report was submitted within the required timeframe. The facility/agency complied with licensing standards for conducting an internal investigation of this occurrence event and submitting a report of the findings to the Department.
Publication
Sent to facility 11/25/2024 · released to the public 12/3/2024.
1/18/2024Misappropriation of Property · ID 2402V727001Reported on time: Yes▼
Occurrence summary
DESCRIPTION OF OCCURRENCE: On 1/18/24, resident (A) identified his wallet was missing from his backpack. Resident (A) stated it was stolen, he had used it on 1/17/24 and it contained credit cards and cash. FACILITY / AGENCY ACTION: The facility conducted an internal investigation and notified the police, family, Adult Protective Services and physician. Resident (A) identified his wallet was missing when he received a phone call from the credit card company regarding a potential fraudulent charge to his credit card. The facility assisted resident (A) with calling the credit card company. A family member stated they put the wallet in the resident’s backpack before it was placed inside his closet. The facility investigation was inconclusive to what happened to the resident’s wallet and whether it was stolen since it wasn't listed on his inventory log. To help prevent a recurrence, all residents were encouraged to lock up their valuables or give the item/s to someone they trust.
DEPARTMENT FINDINGS: In accordance with Colorado Revised Statute 25-1-124, the Department conducted an off-site investigation of this reportable event and investigative findings submitted by the agency/facility. This public summary is based on information provided by the agency/facility to the Occurrence Section of the Department and is accurate and complete at this time. Prior to the next onsite investigation of the agency/facility, this occurrence will be reviewed. The occurrence report indicated the agency/facility acted appropriately in response to this occurrence by complying with licensing standards of reporting and investigating this occurrence.
Publication
Sent to facility 11/18/2024 · released to the public 12/3/2024.
9/22/2023Diverted Drugs · ID 2302V727005Reported on time: Yes▼
Occurrence summary
DESCRIPTION OF OCCURRENCE:
On 9/23/23 at 1:10 a.m., upon taking over the medication cart from nurse (1) and after conducting a medication count, three pills of 5 mg oxycodone medication were identified as missing. The pills were missing from one resident’s narcotic card. Nursing staff conducted a search for the pills in the cart and surrounding area, but no loose tablets of Oxycodone could be found. The medications had been prescribed to a resident, who was in her 80s.
FACILITY / AGENCY ACTION:
The facility conducted an internal investigation and notified the police, family/guardian, ombudsman, and physician. From staff interviews, the following information was discovered. Nurse (1) assumed the medication cart on 9/22/23 at 6 p.m. There were no discrepancies identified with the medication count during that shift change (day to evening). Nurse (1) took a break around 10:30 p.m. and left the facility. They kept the keys to the medication cart on person, which was against facility protocol. A nurse manager received a call stating nurse (1) would not be returning to their shift. Nurse management retrieved the medication cart keys during the middle of the night and proceeded to conduct the medication count. This was when the narcotic count discrepancy was noted. There were no reported adverse outcomes to the resident. She reported Tylenol was adequate for pain control and denied taking or requesting the narcotics. Although the resident stated she did not request or receive pain pills, the documentation showed nurse (1) administered pain pills two days earlier on 9/21. When speaking with nurse (1) about the 9/21 narcotic administration to the one resident, they said they did not ask the resident if they wanted a pain pill but just gave her one. Nurse (1) said they informed the resident of the content of her pills that she was taking. Nurse (1) continued saying they usually gave pain pills to post-op patients, and this resident had been admitted for short-term rehabilitation post a surgery. Nurse (1) reported they noticed missing pills from the card on 9/22/23 and planned to contact management. However, the communication did not occur because they did not return to their shift that night. Managers conducted an audit of current narcotics and no additional issues were identified. No residents complained of unmanaged pain or expressed concerns about not receiving their medications. From the findings, the facility substantiated an allegation of deliberate drug diversion. Management terminated nurse (1)’s employment and reported the findings to their licensing board. Nurses were reminded of the protocols to follow if they left the premises.
DEPARTMENT FINDINGS:
In accordance with Colorado Revised Statute 25-1-124, the Department conducted an off-site investigation of this reportable event and investigative findings submitted by the agency/facility. This public summary is based on information provided by the agency/facility to the Occurrence Section of the Department and is accurate and complete at this time. Prior to the next onsite investigation of the agency/facility, this occurrence will be reviewed.
The occurrence report indicated the facility/agency acted appropriately in response to this occurrence by complying with licensing standards of reporting and investigating this occurrence.
Publication
Sent to facility 1/3/2024 · released to the public 1/10/2024.